Finance Questions
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what is correlation of -1 tells you about a portfolio ?
Instead of credit sales, credit purchases for the period are used, and this figure is compared to the average amount owed to the firm's accounts payable
A buyer of a loan participation is exposed to:(a) risk exposure to the failure of the selling bank(b) risk exposure to the original borrower defaulting and risk exposure to the failure of the selling bank(c) risk exposure to the original borrower defaulting(d) moral hazard problems because the borrower is no longer monitored by the seller
Mortgage-backed bonds (MBB) differ from pass-throughs and collateralised mortgage obligations (CMOs) in which of the following ways(a) The assets backing a MBB issue are normally removed from the balance sheet of the FI.(b) The MBB bondholders have a junior claim to assets of the FI.(c) There is no direct link between the cash flow on the mortgages backing the bond and the interest and principal payments on the MBB.(d) Tranches of a MBB are treated equally with respect to prepayments on mortgages backing the bond issue.
The term credit equivalent amount refers to the:(a) nominal value of an off-balance-sheet item exposed to credit risk(b) credit risk exposure of an off-balance-sheet item(c) credit risk exposure of an on-balance-sheet item(d) nominal value of an on-balance-sheet item exposed to credit risk
Choose the correct capital adequacy ratio(s):(a) None of the listed options are correct.(b) Total capital (Tier 1 capital plus Tier 2 capital) must be at least 6.5% of risk-weighted assets at all times.(c) Total Tier 1 capital must be at least 9% of risk-weighted assets at all times.(d) Common equity Tier 1 must be at least 7.5% of risk-weighted assets at all times.
Which of the following is an advantage of the back simulation approach?(a) simplicity(b) All of the listed options are correct.(c) calculation of correlations of asset returns(d) assumption of normally distributed asset returns
Which of the following statements is true?(a) The Tier 1 capital ratio is the ratio of supplementary capital to the risk-adjusted assets of an FI.(b) The Tier 1 capital ratio is the ratio of supplementary capital to the assets of an FI.(c) The Tier 1 capital ratio is the ratio of core capital to the assets of an FI.(d) The Tier 1 capital ratio is the ratio of core capital to the risk-adjusted assets of an FI.
Which of the following statements is true?(a) Daily earnings at risk are defined as the dollar market value of a position multiplied by the price sensitivity of the position multiplied by the potential adverse move in yield.(b) Daily earnings at risk are defined as (the dollar market value of a position plus the price sensitivity of the position) multiplied by the potential adverse move in yield.(c) Daily earnings at risk are defined as the dollar market value of a position divided by (the price sensitivity of the position plus the potential adverse move in yield).(d) Daily earnings at risk are defined as the dollar market value of a position plus the price sensitivity of the position plus the potential adverse move in yield.
Which of the following are problems in using the leverage ratio as a measure of capital adequacy?(a) The different types of risks, such as credit or interest rate risk are not captured.(b) Even with a low leverage ratio, an FI could have a negative market value net worth.(c) Even with a low leverage ratio, an FI could have a negative market value net worth because the different types of risks, such as credit or interest rate risk are not captured and off-balance-sheet activities are not captured.(d) Off-balance-sheet activities are not captured.
Basel III liquidity reforms:(a) introduce the need for adequate high-quality liquid assets that meet the liquidity coverage ratio (LCR)(b) introduce the need for adequate high-quality liquid assets that meet the available stable funding (ASF) requirement(c) introduce the need for adequate high-quality liquid assets that meet the net stable funding ratio (NSFR)(d) will strengthen global illiquidity rules with the key aim of promoting a resilient global sector
In the collapse of HIH, which of the following was not a comment made by the Royal Commission on APRA's role?(a) APRA's organisation was in transition and the relocation from Canberra to Sydney created managerial distractions for the senior executives.(b) APRA was aware of the concerns raised in the Ernst and Young report and carried out immediate remedial actions.(c) APRA met with some HIH staff after receiving an anonymous report from an ex-employee of HIH but did not follow up further on the report.(d) APRA was aware that HIH was overstating its solvency position but did comparatively little in response.
Which of the following statements is not true?(a) As a result of APRA's remedial actions, NAB lost the flexibility to pay out an interim dividend.(b) APRA increased NAB's CAR in order to protect the shareholders.(c) ASIC conducted the probe into the trading scandal at NAB.(d) In order to meet the higher CAR, NAB could sell its loans on its balance sheet.
What are typical reasons for abnormal deposit drains?(a) Concerns about an FI s solvency relative to other FIs.(b) All of the listed options are correct.(c) Failure of a related FI leading to heightened depositor concerns about the solvency of other FIs.(d) Sudden changes in investor preferences regarding holding non-bank financial assets relative to deposits.
Reasons why market risk measurement is important include:(a) performance evaluation(b) All of the listed options are correct.(c) management information(d) resource allocation
What are the possible ways that a bank can meet an expected net deposit drain of +4 per cent using purchased liquidity management techniques?(a) All of the listed options are correct.(b) Liquidate all cash holdings.(c) Utilise the interbank funds market and repurchase agreements.(d) Utilise repurchase agreements.
Which of the following is incorrect?(a) Prior to the interest rate rigging scandal, the participant banks submitted their mid-rate pricing of the BBSW based on their trades in short term prime bank paper in the previous trading day.(b) To rig the BBSW, the traders in the accused banks stockpiled bank bills and deposits and sold them into the market to move rates up.(c) ASIC's investigation of BBSW rigging came on the back of the LIBOR rigging scandal that took place in Europe.(d )All the Big Four banks were alleged to be guilty of BBSW rigging.
Which of the following statements is true?(a) A credit scoring model is a mathematical model that uses observed borrower characteristics to calculate a score representing the applicant's probability of default or to sort borrowers into different default classes.(b) A credit scoring model is a mathematical model that uses neural networks to make loan decisions.(c) A credit scoring model is a mathematical model that considers a borrower's credit rating to make loan decisions.(d) A credit scoring model is a model that relies on expert knowledge to make loan decisions.
Which of the following was not a remedial action imposed by APRA on NAB after its trading scandal?(a) NAB to rebrand itself.(b) NAB to raise its CAR ratio to 10%.(c) NAB was disallowed to use an internal model to determine market risk capital.(d) NAB had to close its currency options trading desk.
Market risk is defined as the risk related to the uncertainty of an FI's:(a) reputation caused by changes in market conditions(b) earnings on its trading portfolio caused by changes in market conditions(c) solvency caused by the default by specific markets (industries)(d) funding capacity in money markets or in capital markets
